1) The following are participants in the securities markets ______. (1 mark)
(a) Underwriters
(b) Debenture Trustees
(c) Venture Capital Funds
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
2) The securities markets have the following category (ies) of participant (s)
_____. (1 mark)
(a) issuers of securities
(b) investors in securities
(c) intermediaries
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
3) In private placement, issuance is done to _____. (2 marks)
(a) more than 50 persons
(b) less than 100 persons
(c) less than 50 persons
(d) less than 10 persons
(e) I am not attempting the question
4) Which entity provides novation :_______. (2 marks)
(a) NSCCL
(b) NSE
(c) NSDL
(d) CDSL
(e) I am not attempting the question
5) ______ deals with issue, allotment and transfer of securities and various
aspects relating to company management. (2 marks)
(a) Companies Act, 1956
(b) Depositories Act, 1996
(c) Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
6) ______ envisages transfer of ownership of securities electronically by book
entry without making the securities move from person to person. (2 marks)
(a) Companies Act, 1956
(b) Depositories Act, 1996
(c) Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
7) A company making a public issue of securities has to file a draft prospectus
with ____. (1 mark)
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
8) For public and rights issues of debt instruments, it is mandatory to obtain
credit rating from a registered credit rating agency. True or False. (1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
9) Promoters’ contribution in case of public issues by unlisted companies and
promoters’ shareholding in case of ‘offers for sale’ shall not be less than ____ of post
issue capital (2 marks)
(a) 50%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
(e) I am not attempting the question
10) The Companies Act, 1956 requires that every public listed company making
an IPO of any security for ____ or more shall issue the same only in dematerialized
form. (2 marks)
(a) Rs. 50 crores
(b) Rs. 30 crores
(c) Rs. 20 crores
(d) Rs. 10 crores
(e) I am not attempting the question
11) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) are also known as _______.
(2 marks)
(a) Euro Issues
(b) Dollar Issues
(c) Convertible credit securities
(d) Convertible credit bonds
(e) I am not attempting the question
12) Mutual Funds being Public Trusts are governed by the ______. (2 marks)
(a) Indian Trustees Act, 1887
(b) Mutual Trust Act, 1880
(c) Public Trust Act, 1886
(d) Indian Trust Act, 1882
(e) I am not attempting the question
13) A company proposing to list on the NSE must have a minimum paid up equity
capital of _____. (1 mark)
(a) Rs. 50 crs.
(b) Rs. 20 crs.
(c) Rs. 10 crs.
(d) Rs. 30 crs.
(e) I am not attempting the question
14) During Auction, order matching takes place after the ____. (3 marks)
(a) Solicitor period
(b) Intitiator period
(c) Competitor period
(d) Open period
(e) I am not attempting the question
15) For Auction market price bands of _____ are applicable. (2 marks)
(a) 50%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
(e) I am not attempting the question
16) ______ is a clearing member but not a trading member. (1 mark)
(a) Clearing Banks
(b) Self Clearing Member
(c) Clearing Member
(d) Custodian
(e) I am not attempting the question
17) If the Custodian rejects a trade, the obligation is assigned back to the _____.
(1 mark)
(a) investor
(b) trading member
(c) clearing bank
(d) depository
(e) I am not attempting the question
18) A clearing membe r receives shares during ____ . (1 mark)
(a) pay-in
(b) pay-out
(c) auction
(d) funds settlement
(e) I am not attempting the question
19) The market for government securities comprises the securities issued by the
_________
(1 mark)
(a) Central Govt.
(b) State Govt
(c) State sponsored entities
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
20) The _____ arises if a party discharges his obligations but the counterparty
defaults. (2 marks)
(a) replacement cost risk
(b) principal risk
(c) systemic risk
(d) unsystematic risk
(e) I am not attempting the question
21) The ______ combines the features of cash as well as futures markets.
(1 mark)
(a) account period settlement
(b) rolling settlement
(c) T+2 settlement
(d) T+1 settlement
(e) I am not attempting the question
22) Under the T+2 rolling settlement at NSE, Auction takes place on ______.
(1 mark)
(a) T+0
(b) T+1
(c) T+2
(d) T+3
(e) I am not attempting the question
23) Under the T+2 rolling settlement at NSE, Custodial Confirmation takes place
on ______. (1 mark)
(a) T+0
(b) T+1
(c) T+2
(d) T+3
(e) I am not attempting the question
24) NSCCL levies penalties on trading members for non-compliances and defaults
like : ____ (2 marks)
(a) Funds Shortages
(b) Securities Shortages
(c) Margin Shortages
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
25) Interest payments of the following bonds are based on Wholesale Price Index
/ Consumer Price Index : (1 mark)
(a) SBI Bonds
(b) RBI Bonds
(c) Zero Coupon bonds
(d) Indexed bonds
(e) I am not attempting the question
26) Security Type GS stands for ____ in the WDM Segment of NSE. (1 mark)
(a) GDR Securities
(b) Government Securities
(c) General Securities
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
27) Under DVP III, securities are settled on a ___ basis. (2 marks)
(a) cash
(b) gross
(c) net
(d) T+5
(e) I am not attempting the question
28) _____ performs novation for transactions in Government Securities.
(3 marks)
(a) Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (CCIL)
(b) National Securities Clearing Corporation Ltd. (NSCCL)
(c) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
(d) National Depository Services Ltd. (NSDL)
(e) I am not attempting the question
29) ______ trades are essentially forward transactions in a security which is still to be issued. (3 marks)
(a) Forward
(b) If Issued
(c) When Issued
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
30) Swaps are a type of derivatives. True or False. (1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
31) Arbitrageurs are one of the participants in the derivatives markets. True or
False. (1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
32) Risk averse investors use derivatives for speculation. True or False. (1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
33) Speculators use derivatives as Hedging tools. True or False. (1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
34) _____ are standardized, exchange traded contracts. (2 marks)
(a) Swaps
(b) Forwards
(c) Futures
(d) FRAs
(e) I am not attempting the question
35) An exporter would _____ dollar forwards to lock in an exchange rate.
(2 marks)
(a) sell
(b) buy
(c) hold
(d) exchange
(e) I am not attempting the question
36) Strike Price for a call option on a stock is Rs. 125 and the underlying stock
price is Rs. 120. If the Premium is Rs.2, the option is _____. (2 marks)
(a) In the money
(b) Out of the money
(c) At the money
(d) Deep in the money
(e) I am not attempting the question
37) An out of the money call option has an intrinsic value of zero . True or False.
(3 marks)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
38) A securit y trades in the Spot market at Rs. 1319. Money can be invested at
10% p.a. The fair value of a one month futures contract on the security is ___
(2 marks)
(a) Rs. 1341.10
(b) Rs. 1333.20
(c) Rs. 1328.30
(d) Rs. 1330.05
(e) I am not attempting the question
39) A security trades in the Spot market at Rs. 1423. Money can be invested at
10% p.a. The fair value of a one month futures contract on the security is ___
(2 marks)
(a) Rs. 1441.90
(b) Rs. 1434.40
(c) Rs. 1426.70
(d) Rs. 1434.90
(e) I am not attempting the question
40) If you are bullish about a stock, you would ____ call options on the stock.
(1 mark)
(a) sell
(b) buy
(c) short
(d) write
(e) I am not attempting the question
41) If you are bearish about a stock, you would ____ put options on the stock.
(1 mark)
(a) sell
(b) buy
(c) short
(d) write
(e) I am not attempting the question
42) ______ is the total number of outstanding contracts that are held by market
participants at the end of each day. (1 mark)
(a) Outstanding position
(b) Outstanding Interest
(c) Open position
(d) Open Interest
(e) I am not attempting the question
43) _____ means a depository whose name is entered as such in the register of
the issuer. (2 marks)
(a) Beneficiary owner
(b) Registered owner
(c) Investment Banker
(d) R&T Agent
(e) I am not attempting the question
44) A company may purchase its own shares, out of _____. (2 marks)
(a) it’s promoters money
(b) it’s Equity Capital
(c) Profits
(d) Free Reserves
(e) I am not attempting the question
45) A security trades in the Spot market at Rs. 1600. Money can be invested at
10% p.a. The fair value of a one month futures contract on the security is ___
(2 marks)
(a) Rs. 1651.90
(b) Rs. 1634.40
(c) Rs. 1666.40
(d) Rs. 1613.40
(e) I am not attempting the question
46) A seller of a call option has to pay securities transaction tax. True or False.
(1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
47) A buyer of a put option has to pay securities transaction tax. True or False.
(1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
48) _____ deals with listing of securities on stock exchanges. (2 marks)
(a) NSDL
(b) RBI
(c) SC(R)R, 1957
(d) SC(R)A, 1956
(e) I am not attempting the question
49) What is the present value of Rs. 1000 payable 3 years hence, if the interest
rate is 8% per annum? (2 marks )
(a) Rs. 779.42
(b) Rs. 788.23
(c) Rs. 793.83
(d) Rs. 785.54
(e) I am not attempting the question
50) What is the present value of Rs. 1000 payable 5 years hence, if the interest
rate is 10% per annum? (2 marks)
(a) Rs. 680.64
(b) Rs. 656.56
(c) Rs. 620.92
(d) Rs. 690.76
(e) I am not attempting the question
51) Calculate the value 5 years hence of a deposit of Rs. 1000 made today if the
interest rate is 9%. (2 marks)
(a) Rs. 1543.65
(b) Rs. 1538.62
(c) Rs. 1546.23
(d) Rs. 1570.54
(e) I am not attempting the question
52) _____ is the discount rate which makes its net present value equal to zero.
(1 mark)
(a) Accrued Interest rate
(b) Compunding
(c) Discounting
(d) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
(e) I am not attempting the question
53) The Dividend Growth Model approach assumes that the price of equity stock
depends ultimately on the dividend expected from it. True or False. (2 marks)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
54) Security A gives a return of 10% with a dispersion of 4%, while security B
gives return of 18% with a dispersion of 6%. Which security is more risky? (2 marks)
a)Security A
b)Neither of the securities is risky
c)Security B
d)Both securities are equally risky
e)I am not attempting the question
55) Security A gives a return of 12% with a dispersion of 4%, while security B gives
return of 15% with a dispersion of 5%.Which security is more risky? (2 marks)
a)Security B
b)Both securities are equally risky
c)Security A
d)Neither of the securities is risky
e)I am not attempting the question
56) How much is the correlation coefficient between the companies A and B, if their
covariance is 20 and their standard deviations respectively are 4 and 6? (2 marks)
a)0.5345
b)0.8334
c)0.5275
d)-0.2131
e)I am not attempting the question
57) How much is the correlation coefficient between the companies A and B, if their
covariance is 32 and their standard deviations respectively are 7 and 6? (2 marks)
a)0.53
b)0.83
c)0.52
d)0.76
e)I am not attempting the question
58) For a security B, if price at the beginning of the year is Rs.50; dividend
receivable at the end of the year is Rs.1.5; and the price at the end of the year is
Rs.53 then what is the rate of return on the security? (2 marks)
a)0.05
b)0.03
c)0.02
d)0.09
e)I am not attempting the quest ion
59) Gross Profit Ratio is given by __________. (2 marks)
a)Gross Profit/Net Sales
b)Net Profit/ Cost of Sales
c)Net Profit/Sales
d)Gross Profit/Cost of Sales
e)I am not attempting the question
60) Fixed Assets Turnover Ratio is given by __________. (2 marks)
a)Net Sales/Average Net Fixed Assets
b)Net Sales/Gross Fixed Assets
c)Cost of Sales/Average Net Fixed Assets
d)Cost of Sales /Gross Fixed Assets
e)I am not attempting the question
Answers :
1 (d) 21 (a) 41 (b)
2 (d) 22 (d) 42 (d)
3 (c) 23 (b) 43 (b)
4 (a) 24 (d) 44 (d)
5 (a) 25 (d) 45 (d)
6 (b) 26 (b) 46 (a)
7 (b) 27 (c) 47 (b)
8 (a) 28 (a) 48 (d)
9 (c) 29 (c) 49 (c)
10 (d) 30 (a) 50 (c)
11 (a) 31 (a) 51 (b)
12 (d) 32 (b) 52 (d)
13 (c) 33 (b) 53 (a)
14 (a) 34 (c) 54 (a)
15 (c) 35 (a) 55 (b)
16 (d) 36 (b) 56 (b)
17 (b) 37 (a) 57 (d)
18 (b) 38 (d) 58 (d)
19 (d) 39 (d) 59 (a)
20 (b) 40 (b) 60 (a)
(a) Underwriters
(b) Debenture Trustees
(c) Venture Capital Funds
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
2) The securities markets have the following category (ies) of participant (s)
_____. (1 mark)
(a) issuers of securities
(b) investors in securities
(c) intermediaries
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
3) In private placement, issuance is done to _____. (2 marks)
(a) more than 50 persons
(b) less than 100 persons
(c) less than 50 persons
(d) less than 10 persons
(e) I am not attempting the question
4) Which entity provides novation :_______. (2 marks)
(a) NSCCL
(b) NSE
(c) NSDL
(d) CDSL
(e) I am not attempting the question
5) ______ deals with issue, allotment and transfer of securities and various
aspects relating to company management. (2 marks)
(a) Companies Act, 1956
(b) Depositories Act, 1996
(c) Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
6) ______ envisages transfer of ownership of securities electronically by book
entry without making the securities move from person to person. (2 marks)
(a) Companies Act, 1956
(b) Depositories Act, 1996
(c) Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
7) A company making a public issue of securities has to file a draft prospectus
with ____. (1 mark)
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
8) For public and rights issues of debt instruments, it is mandatory to obtain
credit rating from a registered credit rating agency. True or False. (1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
9) Promoters’ contribution in case of public issues by unlisted companies and
promoters’ shareholding in case of ‘offers for sale’ shall not be less than ____ of post
issue capital (2 marks)
(a) 50%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
(e) I am not attempting the question
10) The Companies Act, 1956 requires that every public listed company making
an IPO of any security for ____ or more shall issue the same only in dematerialized
form. (2 marks)
(a) Rs. 50 crores
(b) Rs. 30 crores
(c) Rs. 20 crores
(d) Rs. 10 crores
(e) I am not attempting the question
11) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) are also known as _______.
(2 marks)
(a) Euro Issues
(b) Dollar Issues
(c) Convertible credit securities
(d) Convertible credit bonds
(e) I am not attempting the question
12) Mutual Funds being Public Trusts are governed by the ______. (2 marks)
(a) Indian Trustees Act, 1887
(b) Mutual Trust Act, 1880
(c) Public Trust Act, 1886
(d) Indian Trust Act, 1882
(e) I am not attempting the question
13) A company proposing to list on the NSE must have a minimum paid up equity
capital of _____. (1 mark)
(a) Rs. 50 crs.
(b) Rs. 20 crs.
(c) Rs. 10 crs.
(d) Rs. 30 crs.
(e) I am not attempting the question
14) During Auction, order matching takes place after the ____. (3 marks)
(a) Solicitor period
(b) Intitiator period
(c) Competitor period
(d) Open period
(e) I am not attempting the question
15) For Auction market price bands of _____ are applicable. (2 marks)
(a) 50%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
(e) I am not attempting the question
16) ______ is a clearing member but not a trading member. (1 mark)
(a) Clearing Banks
(b) Self Clearing Member
(c) Clearing Member
(d) Custodian
(e) I am not attempting the question
17) If the Custodian rejects a trade, the obligation is assigned back to the _____.
(1 mark)
(a) investor
(b) trading member
(c) clearing bank
(d) depository
(e) I am not attempting the question
18) A clearing membe r receives shares during ____ . (1 mark)
(a) pay-in
(b) pay-out
(c) auction
(d) funds settlement
(e) I am not attempting the question
19) The market for government securities comprises the securities issued by the
_________
(1 mark)
(a) Central Govt.
(b) State Govt
(c) State sponsored entities
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
20) The _____ arises if a party discharges his obligations but the counterparty
defaults. (2 marks)
(a) replacement cost risk
(b) principal risk
(c) systemic risk
(d) unsystematic risk
(e) I am not attempting the question
21) The ______ combines the features of cash as well as futures markets.
(1 mark)
(a) account period settlement
(b) rolling settlement
(c) T+2 settlement
(d) T+1 settlement
(e) I am not attempting the question
22) Under the T+2 rolling settlement at NSE, Auction takes place on ______.
(1 mark)
(a) T+0
(b) T+1
(c) T+2
(d) T+3
(e) I am not attempting the question
23) Under the T+2 rolling settlement at NSE, Custodial Confirmation takes place
on ______. (1 mark)
(a) T+0
(b) T+1
(c) T+2
(d) T+3
(e) I am not attempting the question
24) NSCCL levies penalties on trading members for non-compliances and defaults
like : ____ (2 marks)
(a) Funds Shortages
(b) Securities Shortages
(c) Margin Shortages
(d) All of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
25) Interest payments of the following bonds are based on Wholesale Price Index
/ Consumer Price Index : (1 mark)
(a) SBI Bonds
(b) RBI Bonds
(c) Zero Coupon bonds
(d) Indexed bonds
(e) I am not attempting the question
26) Security Type GS stands for ____ in the WDM Segment of NSE. (1 mark)
(a) GDR Securities
(b) Government Securities
(c) General Securities
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
27) Under DVP III, securities are settled on a ___ basis. (2 marks)
(a) cash
(b) gross
(c) net
(d) T+5
(e) I am not attempting the question
28) _____ performs novation for transactions in Government Securities.
(3 marks)
(a) Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (CCIL)
(b) National Securities Clearing Corporation Ltd. (NSCCL)
(c) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
(d) National Depository Services Ltd. (NSDL)
(e) I am not attempting the question
29) ______ trades are essentially forward transactions in a security which is still to be issued. (3 marks)
(a) Forward
(b) If Issued
(c) When Issued
(d) None of the above
(e) I am not attempting the question
30) Swaps are a type of derivatives. True or False. (1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
31) Arbitrageurs are one of the participants in the derivatives markets. True or
False. (1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
32) Risk averse investors use derivatives for speculation. True or False. (1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
33) Speculators use derivatives as Hedging tools. True or False. (1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
34) _____ are standardized, exchange traded contracts. (2 marks)
(a) Swaps
(b) Forwards
(c) Futures
(d) FRAs
(e) I am not attempting the question
35) An exporter would _____ dollar forwards to lock in an exchange rate.
(2 marks)
(a) sell
(b) buy
(c) hold
(d) exchange
(e) I am not attempting the question
36) Strike Price for a call option on a stock is Rs. 125 and the underlying stock
price is Rs. 120. If the Premium is Rs.2, the option is _____. (2 marks)
(a) In the money
(b) Out of the money
(c) At the money
(d) Deep in the money
(e) I am not attempting the question
37) An out of the money call option has an intrinsic value of zero . True or False.
(3 marks)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
38) A securit y trades in the Spot market at Rs. 1319. Money can be invested at
10% p.a. The fair value of a one month futures contract on the security is ___
(2 marks)
(a) Rs. 1341.10
(b) Rs. 1333.20
(c) Rs. 1328.30
(d) Rs. 1330.05
(e) I am not attempting the question
39) A security trades in the Spot market at Rs. 1423. Money can be invested at
10% p.a. The fair value of a one month futures contract on the security is ___
(2 marks)
(a) Rs. 1441.90
(b) Rs. 1434.40
(c) Rs. 1426.70
(d) Rs. 1434.90
(e) I am not attempting the question
40) If you are bullish about a stock, you would ____ call options on the stock.
(1 mark)
(a) sell
(b) buy
(c) short
(d) write
(e) I am not attempting the question
41) If you are bearish about a stock, you would ____ put options on the stock.
(1 mark)
(a) sell
(b) buy
(c) short
(d) write
(e) I am not attempting the question
42) ______ is the total number of outstanding contracts that are held by market
participants at the end of each day. (1 mark)
(a) Outstanding position
(b) Outstanding Interest
(c) Open position
(d) Open Interest
(e) I am not attempting the question
43) _____ means a depository whose name is entered as such in the register of
the issuer. (2 marks)
(a) Beneficiary owner
(b) Registered owner
(c) Investment Banker
(d) R&T Agent
(e) I am not attempting the question
44) A company may purchase its own shares, out of _____. (2 marks)
(a) it’s promoters money
(b) it’s Equity Capital
(c) Profits
(d) Free Reserves
(e) I am not attempting the question
45) A security trades in the Spot market at Rs. 1600. Money can be invested at
10% p.a. The fair value of a one month futures contract on the security is ___
(2 marks)
(a) Rs. 1651.90
(b) Rs. 1634.40
(c) Rs. 1666.40
(d) Rs. 1613.40
(e) I am not attempting the question
46) A seller of a call option has to pay securities transaction tax. True or False.
(1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
47) A buyer of a put option has to pay securities transaction tax. True or False.
(1 mark)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
48) _____ deals with listing of securities on stock exchanges. (2 marks)
(a) NSDL
(b) RBI
(c) SC(R)R, 1957
(d) SC(R)A, 1956
(e) I am not attempting the question
49) What is the present value of Rs. 1000 payable 3 years hence, if the interest
rate is 8% per annum? (2 marks )
(a) Rs. 779.42
(b) Rs. 788.23
(c) Rs. 793.83
(d) Rs. 785.54
(e) I am not attempting the question
50) What is the present value of Rs. 1000 payable 5 years hence, if the interest
rate is 10% per annum? (2 marks)
(a) Rs. 680.64
(b) Rs. 656.56
(c) Rs. 620.92
(d) Rs. 690.76
(e) I am not attempting the question
51) Calculate the value 5 years hence of a deposit of Rs. 1000 made today if the
interest rate is 9%. (2 marks)
(a) Rs. 1543.65
(b) Rs. 1538.62
(c) Rs. 1546.23
(d) Rs. 1570.54
(e) I am not attempting the question
52) _____ is the discount rate which makes its net present value equal to zero.
(1 mark)
(a) Accrued Interest rate
(b) Compunding
(c) Discounting
(d) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
(e) I am not attempting the question
53) The Dividend Growth Model approach assumes that the price of equity stock
depends ultimately on the dividend expected from it. True or False. (2 marks)
(a) True
(b) False
(c) I am not attempting the question
54) Security A gives a return of 10% with a dispersion of 4%, while security B
gives return of 18% with a dispersion of 6%. Which security is more risky? (2 marks)
a)Security A
b)Neither of the securities is risky
c)Security B
d)Both securities are equally risky
e)I am not attempting the question
55) Security A gives a return of 12% with a dispersion of 4%, while security B gives
return of 15% with a dispersion of 5%.Which security is more risky? (2 marks)
a)Security B
b)Both securities are equally risky
c)Security A
d)Neither of the securities is risky
e)I am not attempting the question
56) How much is the correlation coefficient between the companies A and B, if their
covariance is 20 and their standard deviations respectively are 4 and 6? (2 marks)
a)0.5345
b)0.8334
c)0.5275
d)-0.2131
e)I am not attempting the question
57) How much is the correlation coefficient between the companies A and B, if their
covariance is 32 and their standard deviations respectively are 7 and 6? (2 marks)
a)0.53
b)0.83
c)0.52
d)0.76
e)I am not attempting the question
58) For a security B, if price at the beginning of the year is Rs.50; dividend
receivable at the end of the year is Rs.1.5; and the price at the end of the year is
Rs.53 then what is the rate of return on the security? (2 marks)
a)0.05
b)0.03
c)0.02
d)0.09
e)I am not attempting the quest ion
59) Gross Profit Ratio is given by __________. (2 marks)
a)Gross Profit/Net Sales
b)Net Profit/ Cost of Sales
c)Net Profit/Sales
d)Gross Profit/Cost of Sales
e)I am not attempting the question
60) Fixed Assets Turnover Ratio is given by __________. (2 marks)
a)Net Sales/Average Net Fixed Assets
b)Net Sales/Gross Fixed Assets
c)Cost of Sales/Average Net Fixed Assets
d)Cost of Sales /Gross Fixed Assets
e)I am not attempting the question
Answers :
1 (d) 21 (a) 41 (b)
2 (d) 22 (d) 42 (d)
3 (c) 23 (b) 43 (b)
4 (a) 24 (d) 44 (d)
5 (a) 25 (d) 45 (d)
6 (b) 26 (b) 46 (a)
7 (b) 27 (c) 47 (b)
8 (a) 28 (a) 48 (d)
9 (c) 29 (c) 49 (c)
10 (d) 30 (a) 50 (c)
11 (a) 31 (a) 51 (b)
12 (d) 32 (b) 52 (d)
13 (c) 33 (b) 53 (a)
14 (a) 34 (c) 54 (a)
15 (c) 35 (a) 55 (b)
16 (d) 36 (b) 56 (b)
17 (b) 37 (a) 57 (d)
18 (b) 38 (d) 58 (d)
19 (d) 39 (d) 59 (a)
20 (b) 40 (b) 60 (a)
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